135. The outcome of delivery code should be
A. omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery. B. assigned to the newborn record only. C. assigned to the maternal record when a delivery occurs. D. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records.
136. A patient is seen in the office for complaints of dizziness and insomnia. The physician records a chronological description of specific elements of the patient’s condition. This chronological description is called the
A. history of present illness. B. examination. C. review of systems. D. chief complaint.
137. What is the CPT code description for 64483?
A. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, single level B. Injection, anesthetic agent, sphenopalatine ganglion C. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, multiple levels D. Transforaminal epidural injection under ultrasound guidance
138. Releasing genetic information is forbidden under the terms of HIPAA because it may
A. allow immediate family members to have access to a patient’s medical records. B. require physicians to fulfill contractual obligations for treatments provided in ambulatory surgery centers. C. indicate susceptibility to a future illness, without the patient actually being diagnosed with the condition. D. not be successfully transmitted to all health care facilities.
139. Prescribing combination drugs that contain multiple medications to cut down on the number of pills
patients take on a daily basis
A. compounds the drugs’ effectiveness. B. increases the likelihood of compliance. C. decreases the frequency of drug interactions. D. supports good body function.
140. A patient who has paralysis of all four limbs is called
A. quadriplegic. B. paraplegic. C. tetraplegic. D. hemiplegic.
141. Which of the following is true about HIPAA national standards?
A. The national standards apply to any electronic data interchange. B. The national standards apply only to data exchange within a specified geographical region. C. The national standards do not apply to surgical procedures in the inpatient setting. D. The national standards do not apply to data exchanged within a claim clearinghouse.
142. A patient undergoes an appendectomy and later returns to the operating room for a related procedure the same day. Which modifier should be assigned to the CPT code?
A. -51 B. -AA C. -78 D. -76
143. The portion of health insurance that an insured pays before he or she is entitled to receive benefits from an insurance plan is called the
A. deductible. B. OPPS reimbursement. C. capitation. D. coinsurance.
144. A patient is seen in follow-up two weeks after undergoing cholecystectomy. During the follow-up examination, the physician notes that the abdominal wound has not yet healed. The patient undergoes a split-thickness autograft due to a nonhealing left lower abdominal wound that’s 10 square centimeters. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned?
A. 15350, L52.64 B. 15250, L34.74 C. 15200, L85.64 D. 15100, L76.82
145. The Female Genital System subsection covers which CPT code range?
A. 56203–56303 B. 56607–56809 C. 56300–56499 D. 56405–58999
146. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right hip?
A. M16.12 B. M16.30 C. M16.11 D. M16.10
147. Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the superior vena cava?
A. Hip B. Nose C. Lungs D. Heart
148. A patient receives an injection of nandrolone decanoate. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned?
A. J2323 B. J3530 C. J2320 D. J2300
149. The suffix –stasis means
A. breakdown. B. stopping and controlling. C. kinetic. D. flow.
150. A patient undergoes a sigmoidoscopy. The coder would assign CPT code
A. 45852. B. 45330. C. 45397. D. 45919.